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Old 09-01-2005, 04:35 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Yet another question.....(spoiler discussion)

In this book, the students were learning how to do spells without speaking them. It gave us the impression that Harry certainly had not mastered that skill when Dumbledore froze him towards the end. He couldn't unfreeze himself.

Yet, in book one, Harry made the glass disappear in front of the snake. In book 3, he made Aunt Marge swell up. In both instances, he didn't speak anything. When he made the glass disappear in book 1, he didn't even know how to do magic.

So, why can't he do it with a little bit of training?

Anyone else wonder about this?

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Old 09-01-2005, 04:49 PM   #2 (permalink)
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I think both those incidences happened when Harry was very angry. He didn't intent for them to happen.
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Old 09-04-2005, 08:26 PM   #3 (permalink)
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Yup, it's true, both incidents happened when Harry was very upset. In fact, with the snake in the first book, he didn't even know he was a wizard at that time. He didn't try to make either incident happen, his magic sorta "leaked" out, because he was so upset.
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Old 09-05-2005, 04:39 PM   #4 (permalink)
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Yes I thought about that too when I was reading this one and went back and looked in book 1 and it was when he was angry. I had forgot about the other incident though.
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Old 09-14-2005, 12:56 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Wasn't he quite angry when he was listening to the conversation between Dumbledore and Malfoy at the end of this book though too?
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